Physics (PHY101)

1. A ball is thrown upward into air with a speed that is greater than terminal speed. It lands at the place where it was thrown. During its flight the force of air resistance is the greatest:

   1. just after it is thrown
   2. half way up
   3. at the top of its trajectory
   4. halfway down

2. For a body to be in equilibrium under the combined action of several forces:

   1. any two of these forces must be balanced by a third force
   2. the sum of components of all the forces in any direction must equal zero
   3. all of the forces form pairs of equal and opposite forces
   4. all the forces must be applied at the same point

3. The angle between rectangular components of a vector is:

   1. 0*
   2. 45*
   3. 60*
   4. 90*

4. If Io is the peak value of an AC supply, then its rms value is given as lrms:

   1. Io/\(\sqrt2\)
   2. Io/0.707
   3. Io/2
   4. \(\sqrt2\) Io

5. A 4.0-m long steel beam with a cross-sectional area of 1.0 × 10-2 m2 and a Young's modulus of 2.0 × 1011 N/m2 is wedged horizontally between two vertical walls. In order to wedge the beam, it is compressed by 0.020mm. If the coefficient of static friction between the beam and the walls is 0.70 the maximum mass (including its own) it can bear without slipping is:

   1. 3.6 kg
   2. 36 kg
   3. 71 kg
   4. 710 kg

6. The application/s of dimensional analysis is/are:
   i. To convert a physical quantity from one system of units to an other.
   ii. To check the dimensional correctness of a given equation.
   iii. Establish a relationship between different physical quantities in an equation.

   1. i only
   2. ii & iii only
   3. i & iii only
   4. I, ii & iii

7. How much pressure is exerted on a submarine at a depth of 8.50 km in the Pacific Ocean? (The density of sea water = 1.025 * 103 kg/m3, and the atmospheric pressure at sea level = 1.01 * 105 Pa.)

   1. 8.6 * 105 Pa
   2. 8.7 * 106 Pa
   3. 9.5 * 106 Pa
   4. 8.6 * 106 Pa

8. A sound wave has a wavelength of 3.0m. The distance from a compression center to the adjacent to the rarefaction center is:

   1. 0.75m
   2. 1.5m
   3. 3.0m
   4. need to know frequency

9. A source of frequency of 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.4 m, how long does the wave take to travel 600 m?

   1. 3 s
   2. 6 s
   3. 9 s
   4. 12 s

10. A municipal water supply is provided by a tall water tower. Water from this tower flows to a building. How does the water flow out of a faucet on the ground floor of a building compare with the water flow out of an identical faucet on the second floor of the building?

    1. Water flows more rapidly out of the ground-floor faucet.
    2. Water flows more rapidly out of the second-floor faucet.
    3. Water flows at the same speed out of both faucets.
    4. The speed of water flow cannot be determined unless the height of the water tower is known.

11. The wavelength of red light is 700 nm. Its frequency is ________.

    1. 4.29 * 10^14 Hertz
    2. 4.29 * 10^13 Hertz
    3. 4.29 * 10^15 Hertz
    4. 4.29 * 10^12 Hertz

12. The vibrations or the pressure variations inside the inner air are converted into electrical signals by the ________.

    1. cochlea
    2. tympanic membrane
    3. pinna
    4. anvil

13. A ________ vector is obtained by dividing the vector by its magnitude:

    1. unit
    2. position
    3. normal
    4. negative

14. Huygens' construction can be used only:

    1. for light
    2. for an electromagnetic wave
    3. for transverse waves
    4. for all of the above and other situations

15. The speed of sound in medium depends upon

    1. amplitude
    2. frequency
    3. wavelength
    4. properties of the medium

16. According to the equation of work, when a boy sits in one place and studies for the whole night , he does

    1. lot of work
    2. no work
    3. too much work
    4. very little work

17. The sum of electric and magnetic force is called:

    1. Centripetal force
    2. Newton's force
    3. Lorentz force
    4. Maxwell force

18. Coulomb's law is only true for point charges whose sizes are

    1. large
    2. very small
    3. very large
    4. medium

19. Bending of light around the edges of an obstacle called:

    1. Refraction
    2. Polarization
    3. Interference
    4. Diffraction

20. It is easier to walk on concrete road than on ice because:

    1. the amount of firection is same for both (ice & concrete road)
    2. there is more friction on the ice than on concrete
    3. ice is soft and spongy where as concrete is hard
    4. the friction between the ice and the feet is less than that between the concrete and feet

21. A mosquito's buzz is often rated with a decibel rating of 40 dB. Normal conversation is often rated at 60 dB. How many times more intense is normal conversation compared to a mosquito's buzz?

    1. 2
    2. 20
    3. 100
    4. 400

22. Electric energy is measured:

    1. Kilowatt hour
    2. Kilowatt
    3. Horsepower
    4. Watt

23. A force of 5000N is applied outwardly to each end of a 5.0-m long rod with a radius of 34.0 cm and a Young's modulus of 125 x 108 N/m². The elongation of the rod is:

    1. 0.0020mm
    2. 0.0040mm
    3. 0.14mm
    4. 0.55mm

24. Radio waves and light waves are ________.

    1. Loggitudinal waves
    2. Transverse waves
    3. Electromagnetic and transverse both
    4. Electromagnetic and longitudinal both

25. An object moves in a circle at constant speed. The work done by the centripetal force is zero because:

    1. the displacement for each revolution is zero
    2. the average force for each revolution is zero
    3. there is no firiction
    4. the centripetal force is perpendicular to the velocity

26. When an object (iron/tungsten) is heated, it emits light, it emits infrared (IR) light when it is heated at a temperature ________.

    1. Below 800 degree C
    2. Between 800 degree C to 1600 degree C
    3. Between 1600 degree C to 2500 degree C
    4. Above 2500 degree C

27. The frequency which is not audible to the human ear is

    1. 50 Hz
    2. 500 Hz
    3. 5000 Hz
    4. 50000 Hz

28. A light entering into glass prism from air does not give change in its:

    1. Frequency
    2. Wavelength
    3. Velocity
    4. Direction

29. Which of the following statements are TRUE of sound waves? Identify all that apply.

    1. Sound can travel through a vacuum
    2. A sound wave is a transverse wave
    3. A sound wave is a mechanical wave
    4. To hear the sound of a tuning fork, the tines of the fork must move air from the fork to one's ear

30. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has photons with the greatest energy?

    1. blue light
    2. yellow light
    3. x rays
    4. radio waves

31. Which of the following will remain unchanged when a sound wave travels in air or in water?

    1. Amplitude
    2. Wavelength
    3. Frequency
    4. Speed

32. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the sending and receiving of the wave is 1.6 s. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 m/s?

    1. 1120 m
    2. 560 m
    3. 1400 m
    4. 112 m

33. In ________ object returns to its original position if displaced slightly

    1. dynamic equilibrium
    2. stable equilibrium
    3. unstable equilibrium
    4. rotational equilibrium

34. When you step on the accelerator to increase the speed of your car, the force that accelerates the car is

    1. the normal force of the road on the tires
    2. the force of the engine on the drive shaft
    3. the force of friction of the road on the tires
    4. the force of your foot on the accelerator

35. Following are the ways by which light can interact with matter, EXCEPT:

    1. Emission
    2. Interference
    3. Absorption
    4. Transmission

36. acceleration of an object must be zero at a point where:

    1. the instantaneous velocity is zero but changing
    2. the instantaneous velocity is constant
    3. the average velocity is zero
    4. the instantaneous velocity is not zero but changing

37. Earth exerts a gravitational force on the Moon, keeping it in its orbit. The reaction to this force, in the sense of Newton's third law, is:

    1. the centripetal force on the Moon
    2. the nearly circular orbit on the Moon
    3. the gravitational force on Earth by the Moon
    4. the tides due to the Moon

38. A sound wave has a wavelength of 3.0m. The distance from a compression center to the adjacent rarefaction center is:

    1. 0.75m
    2. 1.5m
    3. 3.0m
    4. need to know wave speed

39. The magnitude of the acceleration of a planet in orbit around the Sun is proportional to:

    1. the mass of the planet
    2. the mass of the Sun
    3. the distance between the planet and the Sun
    4. the reciprocal of the distance between the planet and the Sun

40. A plane produces a sonic boom only when:

    1. it emits sound waves of very long wavelength
    2. it emits sound waves of high frequencyit flys at high altitudes
    3. it flys faster than the speed of sound
    4. it flys faster than the speed of sound

41. No lens is perfect because ________.

    1. They suffer from aberration
    2. They are not perfectly spherical
    3. It is nearly impossible to polish them
    4. They are not cleaned with accuracy.

42. Which pair will always have the same magnitude to the rate of change of position?

    1. Average velocity and instantaneous velocity
    2. Average speed and instantaneous speed
    3. Instantaneous speed and instantaneous velocity
    4. Average speed and average velocity

43. An inellastic collidion is one in which:

    1. momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is conserved
    2. total mass is not conserved but momentum is conserved
    3. neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved
    4. momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved

44. A vector A is added to a vector B. The resultant vector A + B have greatest magnitude when:

    1. The magnitude of vector A + B does not depend on the directions of A and B
    2. When vectors A and B are parallel and in the opposite direction
    3. When vectors A and B are parallel and in the same direction
    4. When vectors A and B are perpendicular

45. To determine if a rigid body is in equilibrium the vector sum of the gravitational forces acting on the particles of the body can be replaced by a single force acting at:

    1. a point on the boundary
    2. the center of gravity
    3. the geometrical center
    4. the center of mass

46. Momentum may be expressed in:

    1. kg/(m s)
    2. N s
    3. gram s
    4. kg/m

47. Work may be done by ________.

    1. only vehicles
    2. only non-living objects
    3. only living organisms
    4. both living organisms and non-living objects

48. A vector is obtained by dividing the vector by its magnitude:

    1. unit
    2. position
    3. normal
    4. negative

49. The turning effect of a force is called the force's

    1. momentum
    2. torque/moment
    3. distance
    4. inertia

50. Take the speed of sound to be 340m/s. A thunder clap is heard about 3 s after the lightning is seen. The source of both light and sound is:

    1. moving overhead faster than the speed of sound
    2. emitting a much higher frequency than is heard
    3. emitting a much lower frequency than is heard
    4. about 1000m away

51. Which of the following statements about floating object is correct?

    1. The object's density is greater than the density of the fluid on which it floats.
    2. The object's density is equal to the density of the fluid on which it floats.
    3. The displaced volume of fluid is greater than the volume of the object.
    4. The buoyant force equals the object's weight.

52. The special theory of relativity is applicable to the object moving with maximum velocity equal to:

    1. Speed of light
    2. More than speed of light
    3. Less than speed of light
    4. Double the speed of light

53. The focal length of a spherical mirror is N times its radius of curvature where N is:

    1. 1/4
    2. 1/2
    3. 1
    4. 2

54. Acceleration in a body is always produced in the direction of:

    1. Velocity
    2. Weight
    3. Force
    4. Acceleration

55. The unit of thermal conductivity might be:

    1. Cal*cm/(s*C?)
    2. Cal/ (cm*s*C?)
    3. Cal*s/ (cm*C?)
    4. C?/ (cal*cm*s)

56. The torque about any two points has the same value when the body is in

    1. translational equilibrium
    2. neutral equilibrium
    3. dynamic equilibrium
    4. static equilibrium

57. When the momentum of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy ________ .

    1. Becomes ten times its kinetic energy
    2. Becomes four times its initial energy
    3. Drop to zero
    4. Remains the same

58. When a spring is compressed or stretched, the potential energy of the spring

    1. Decreases
    2. stays constant
    3. Increases
    4. Becomes zero

59. A 2.0-kg block travels around a 0.5-m radius circle with an angular velocity of 12 rad/s. Its angular momentum about the center of the circle is:

    1. 6.0 kg.m²/s
    2. 12 kg.m²/s
    3. 48 kg/m².s
    4. 72 kg.m²/s²

60. The amplitude modulation frequency ranges from:

    1. 540 kHz to 1000 kHz
    2. 540 kHz to 1600 kHz
    3. 520 kHz to 1600 kHz
    4. 540 kHz to 1400 kHz

61. If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude 50 mm and time period 2s, then its maximum velocity is

    1. 0.1 m/s
    2. 0.15 m/s
    3. 0.8 m/s
    4. 0.16 m/s

62. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s a plane flying at 400m/s creates a conical shock wave with an apex half angle of:

    1. 0 (no shock wave)
    2. 32?
    3. 40?
    4. 58?

63. Kirchhoff's first rule is the manifestation of the law of conservation of:

    1. Momentum
    2. Energy
    3. Charge
    4. Mass

64. If 0.5 T field over an area of 2m³ which lies at an angle of 600 with field.. Then the resultant flux will be

    1. 0.25 T
    2. 0.25 Wb
    3. 0.50 Wb
    4. 0.50 T

65. A generator supplies 100V to the primary coil of a transformer. The primary has 50 turns and the secondary has 500 turns. The secondary voltage is:

    1. 1000V
    2. 500V
    3. 250V
    4. 100V

66. Sound waves are

    1. longitudinal
    2. transverse
    3. partly longitudinal and partly transverse
    4. sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse

67. The ratio of circumference of a circle to its diameter is equal to:

    1. 2 π
    2. π
    3. π /2
    4. one steradian

68. Sound and light waves both

    1. have similar wavelength
    2. obey the laws of reflection
    3. travel as longitudinal waves
    4. travel through vacuum

69. The total energy in an LC circuit is 5.0 × 10-6 J. If L = 25mH the maximum current is:

    1. 10mA
    2. 20mA
    3. 14mA
    4. 28mA

70. The center of mass of a uniform disk of radius R is located:

    1. at the center
    2. a distance R/3 from the center
    3. a distance R/2 from the center
    4. on the rim

71. Point where force causes system to move without rotation is

    1. 2 times beyond centre of mass
    2. edge of the body
    3. mid point of body
    4. center of mass

72. The light from any ordinarysource (such as a fame) is usually:

    1. Plane polarized
    2. Circularly polarized
    3. Monochromatic
    4. Un-polarized

73. A force of 120 N is exerted on a 40 kg container which sits on afloor. If the frictional force between floor and container is 80 N. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the container?

    1. 2 ms^-2
    2. 5 ms^-2
    3. 3 ms^-2
    4. 1 ms^-2

74. The work done by gravity during the descent of a projectile:

    1. depends for its sign on the direction of the y axis
    2. is positive
    3. is negative
    4. is zero

75. Coherent sources of light mean ________.

    1. They must have same speeds
    2. They must have same frequency
    3. They must have same amplitude
    4. They must have fixed phase relative to each other

76. The least distance of distinct vision for normal eye:

    1. 5 cm
    2. 10 cm
    3. 25 cm
    4. 50 cm

77. Lenz's law is in accordance with law of conservation of

    1. Mass
    2. Momentum
    3. Charge
    4. Energy

78. The known laws of electromagnetism before James Clerk Maxwell were following, EXCEPT:

    1. Gauss's Laws
    2. Ampere's Law
    3. Faraday's Law
    4. De Broglie Law

79. Which of the following is true of all virtual images?

    1. They can be seen but not photographed
    2. They are smaller than the objects
    3. They are larger than the objects
    4. None of the given

80. What is the angle of projection of projectile, for which its maximum height and horizontal range are equal?

    1. 30*
    2. 36*
    3. 76*
    4. 90*

81. Which of the following statement is TRUE of sound intensity and decibel levels? Identify all that apply.

    1. The intensity of sound which corresponds to the threshold of pain is one trillion times more intense than the sound which corresonds to the threshold of hearing.
    2. Two sounds which have a ratio of decible ratings equal to 2.0. This means that the second sound is twice as intense as the first sound.
    3. Sound A is 20 times more intense than the sound B. So if sound B is rated at 30 dB, then sound A is rated at 50 dB.
    4. A machine produces a sound which is rated at 60 dB. If two of the machines were used at the same time, the decibel rating would be 120 dB.

82. For an ideal fluid flowing through a horizontal pipe, Bernoulli's equation states that the sum of the pressure and energy per unit volume along the pipe does which of the following? (Assume measurements are taken along the pipe in the direction of fluid flow.)

    1. increases as the pipe diameter increases
    2. decreases as the pipe diameter increases
    3. remains constant as the pipe diameter increases
    4. increases, then decreases as the pipe diameter increases

83. Light year is a unit of:

    1. accelration
    2. velocity
    3. time
    4. distance

84. A qualitative definition of force is given by which law?

    1. Newton's second law of motion
    2. Newton's law of gravitation
    3. Newton's third law of motion
    4. law of inertia

85. The speed of a sound wave is determined by:

    1. its amplitude
    2. its intensity
    3. the transmitting medium
    4. number of harmonics present

86. Interference of light is evidence that:

    1. the speed of light is very latge
    2. light is a transverse wave
    3. light is a wave phenomenon
    4. light is electromagnetic in character

87. The momentum of an object at a given instant is independent of its:

    1. acceleration
    2. velocity
    3. speed
    4. mass

88. A couple produces:

    1. Purely linear motion
    2. Purely rotational motion
    3. Linear and rotational motion
    4. No motion

89. Add two vectors of length 4 m & 5 m but their orientation is not known, The length after addition of these two vectors will be:

    1. Less than 1 m
    2. between 9 m and 1 m
    3. between 9 m and 5 m
    4. 9m

90. The angular momentum vector of Earth about its rotation axis, due to its daily rotation, is directed:

    1. south
    2. north
    3. tangent to the equator toward the west
    4. tangent to the equator toward the east

91. The fundamental dimensions of angular momentum are

    1. ML^-2T^-2
    2. MLT^-1
    3. ML²T^-1
    4. ML²T^-2

92. A body is changing its direction but speed is constant, the object is:

    1. accelerating
    2. slowing down
    3. speeding
    4. Displacing

93. Which of the following have the greatest wavelength?

    1. Gamma rays
    2. Ultraviolet
    3. Infrared
    4. Radio waves

94. The unit kg-m2/s can be used for:

    1. angular momentum
    2. rational kinetic energy
    3. rational inertia
    4. torque

95. In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force must be proportional to the:

    1. amplitude
    2. frequency
    3. velocity
    4. displacement

96. A capacitor in an LC oscillator has a maximum potential difference of 15V and a maximum energy of 360 μJ. At a certain instant the energy in the capacitor is 40 μJ. At that instant what is the emf induced in the inductor?

    1. zero
    2. 5V
    3. 10V
    4. 15V

Select a course code for Objective Questions:

ACC311 ACC501 BIF101 BIF401 BIF501 BIO101 BIO201 BIO202 BIO203 BIO204 BIO301 BIO302 BIO303 BIO401 BIO503 BNK603 BT101 BT201 BT301 BT302 BT401 BT402 BT403 BT404 BT405 BT406 BT501 BT504 BT505 BT604 CHE201 CHE301 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS202 CS204 CS301 CS302 CS304 CS311 CS401 CS402 CS403 CS408 CS501 CS502 CS504 CS506 CS508 CS601 CS602 CS604 CS605 CS607 CS609 CS610 CS614 CS707 CS710 ECO401 ECO402 ECO403 ECO404 EDU302 EDU401 EDU402 EDU501 EDU601 ENG101 ENG201 ENG301 ENG501 FIN611 FIN624 FIN625 ISL201 IT430 MCM101 MCM301 MGMT623 MGT101 MGT211 MGT301 MGT401 MGT402 MGT501 MGT502 MGT503 MGT510 MGT601 MGT603 MKT501 MKT610 MKT630 MTH101 MTH202 MTH302 MTH501 MTH601 MTH634 PAK301 PHY101 PHY301 PSY101 PSY403 PSY502 PSY512 SOC101 SOC301 SOC401 STA301 STA630 STA641 ZOO102 ZOO401 ZOO501 ZOO502 ZOO503 ZOO504 ZOO505 ZOO506 ZOO510 ZOO630

Select a course code for Subjective Questions:

ACC311 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS301 CS607 CS701 CS702 CS703 CS704 CS707 CS708 CS710 CS711 CS718 CS721 CS724 ECO401 ECO403 ENG101 ENG301 MGT703 MTH501 STA301