Methods in Molecular Biology (BIO203)

1. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in ________.

   1. Spectrophotometry
   2. Gel electrophoresis
   3. PCR
   4. Tissue culture

2. The extension rate of Taq Polymerase enzyme is ________.

   1. 60 nt/sec
   2. 65 nt/sec
   3. 70 nt/sec
   4. 75 nt/sec

3. What happens during the Anneal step of PCR?

   1. Primers are created
   2. The primers attach to the target DNA region
   3. Primers copy the new DNA strand
   4. Primers sequence DNA

4. In ________ PCR there is very low probability of non-specific amplification of DNA.

   1. Nested
   2. Multiplex
   3. RT-PCR
   4. Conventional

5. Inverse PCR supports the amplification and identification of ________.

   1. Flanking sequences
   2. Genomic inserts
   3. Transposable elements
   4. All of the given

6. Inverse PCR is used for the identification and amplification of ________.

   1. Long genes
   2. Flanking sequence
   3. Promote region
   4. Whole genome

7. Mini Primer PCR uses a thermostable polymerase (S-Tbr) that can extend from short primers as short as ________ nucleotides.

   1. 14-15
   2. 5-6
   3. 7-8
   4. 9-10

8. Degenerate Primers are used for the amplication of ________.

   1. Multiple genes
   2. Single gene
   3. Whole genome
   4. All of the given

9. What happens in the Denature step of PCR?

   1. The DNA nucleotides are broken apart.
   2. The base-pairing rules for DNA are reversed.
   3. The double-stranded DNA is separated into two single strands of DNA.
   4. The DNA is returned to its natural setting.

10. ________ is used for the screening of bacterial of yeast clones for correct ligation or plasmid products.

    1. RT-PCR
    2. Real time PCR
    3. Nested PCR
    4. Colony PCR

11. Which one of the following is the source of pfu Polymerase?

    1. Thermococcus litoralis
    2. Thermococcus litoralis
    3. Pyrococcus furiosus
    4. T. aquaticus

12. ________ PCR is used for screening of bacterial or yeast clones for correct ligation or plasmid products.

    1. Asymmetric PCR
    2. Q-PCR
    3. Allele-specific
    4. Colony PCR

13. Real Time PCR is used to measure the quantity of a ________.

    1. RNA expression
    2. PCR product
    3. DNA amplification
    4. All of the given

14. What would the generally expected effect on the PCR reaction be of adjustments that increase the temperature of the annealing phase and the length of the elongation phase?

    1. Precision and yield will be reduced
    2. Precision will be reduced, but yield will be increased
    3. Precision will be increased, but yield will be reduced
    4. Precision and yield will be increased

15. Molecular Detection methods can facilitate in detection of ________ in plants, animals and environment.

    1. trace element
    2. radioactive elements
    3. pigments
    4. pathogens

16. Suicide PCR is used in ________.

    1. Cytogenetics
    2. Human Genetics
    3. Paleogenetics
    4. None of the given

17. ________ tools have also allowed to perform penatal genetic diagnosis.

    1. Molecular
    2. Microbiology
    3. Histology
    4. Radiology

18. A technique for making millions of copies of a specific region of DNA.

    1. DNA ligase
    2. Restriction enzymes
    3. Gel electrophoresis
    4. Polymerase chain reaction

19. Genomic fingerprinting is a ________ medicine technique used to identify individuals by characteristics of their DNA.

    1. Alternative
    2. Toxicology
    3. Regenerative
    4. Forensic

20. ________ tools have also allowed to perform prenatal genetic diagnosis.

    1. Molecular
    2. Microbiology
    3. Histology
    4. Radiology

21. Why are vent ploymerase and Pfu more efficient than the Taq polymerase?

    1. Because of proofreading activity
    2. Because of more efficient polymerase activity
    3. Both of the given
    4. None of the given

22. A recognition sequence usually ranges from ________ bases.

    1. 4-12
    2. 6-8
    3. 4-8
    4. 4-6

23. ________ PCR uses primers whose 3' ends encompass the SNP.

    1. Reverse Transcriptase PCR
    2. Assembly PCR
    3. Ligation mediated PCR
    4. Allele Specific PCR

24. ________ enzymes have symmetrical recognition sequences but are of little value.

    1. Type III
    2. Exonucleases
    3. Type II
    4. Type I

25. Melting of DNA template results in yielding ________ of DNA.

    1. Single strands
    2. Double strands
    3. Replicated strands
    4. All of the given

26. ________ refers to the study of ancient human, animal and plant remains.

    1. Molecular Biology
    2. Parasitology
    3. Pathology
    4. Paleontology

27. Two sets of primers instead of one pair are uses in ________.

    1. Nested PCR
    2. Traditional PCR
    3. In-situ PCR
    4. None of the given

28. Allele-specific PCR used for identifying of ________.

    1. SNPs
    2. Long genes
    3. Deletion Mutations
    4. Insertion Mutations

29. Methylation-specific PCR is used to identify patterns of DNA methylation at ________.

    1. CpG islands
    2. Promoter region
    3. AP Site
    4. Star site

30. Sequences of nucleotides which have a twofold axis of rotational symmetry is known as ________.

    1. binding site
    2. restriction site
    3. recognition site only
    4. Palindrome

31. To amplify one strand of the original DNA more than the other, a special type of PCR is used which is known as ________.

    1. Asymmetric PCR
    2. Colony PCR
    3. In-situ PCR
    4. None of the given

32. A heat stable enzyme called Taq Polymerase is used in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) which is obtained from a bacterium ________.

    1. Escherichia coli
    2. Salmonella Typhi
    3. Thermus aquaticus
    4. Actinobacillus capsulatus

33. AFLP is a highly sensitive PCR-based method for detecting ________ in DNA.

    1. Polymorphisms
    2. Deletion
    3. Insertion
    4. Duplication

34. ________ enzymes have symmetrical recognition sequencesbut are of little value.

    1. Type III
    2. Exonucleases
    3. Type II
    4. Type I

35. Which of the following statements are true regarding PCR?

    1. Primer extension occurs at 72°C
    2. Denaturation involves heating at 90 to 98°C
    3. Annealing involves the binding of primer between 40 to 60°C
    4. All of the given

36. At what temperature does denaturation of DNA double helix takes place?

    1. 54°C
    2. 47°C
    3. 94°C
    4. 60°C

37. Endonucleases are classified in to ________ main classes.

    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 6

38. The process of reverse transcription reverse transcribes ________.

    1. RNA into DNA
    2. DNA into RNA
    3. DNA into DNA
    4. All of the given

39. Non genomic material such as RNA can be detected by ________.

    1. In situ PCR
    2. Conventional PCR
    3. Western blotting
    4. Spectrophotometer

40. Parental genetic diagnosis is not important for identification of ________.

    1. Chromosomal abnormality
    2. inherited mutation
    3. Familiar disorder
    4. Infectious diseases

41. ________ PCR uses the template for the reverse primers is a restriction fragment that has been self-ligated.

    1. Invers
    2. Allele-specific
    3. Colony
    4. Asymmetric

42. Assembly PCR is used to assemble two or more places of DNA into ________.

    1. One piece
    2. Two piece
    3. Three piece
    4. None of the given

43. Binding of primers to the single stranded DNA is called ________.

    1. Initialization
    2. Melting
    3. Binding
    4. Annealing

44. Primers used for the process of polymerase chain reaction are ________.

    1. Single-stranded RNA oligonucleotide
    2. Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide
    3. Double-stranded RNA oligonucleotide
    4. Double-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

45. Enzyme that creates phosphodiester bond between 3' end of one DNA segment and the 5' another is known as ________.

    1. DNA polymerase
    2. DNA helicase
    3. DNA ligase
    4. RNA polymerase

46. If the primer sequence is TCG, what section of DNA will it anneal?

    1. AGC
    2. CAT
    3. GAC
    4. ATC

47. The instrument used to run the PCR is known as ________.

    1. Centrifuge machine
    2. Incubator
    3. UV Transilluminator
    4. Thermocycler

48. What is the function of a primer?

    1. To identify the particular region of DNA to be copied by PCR.
    2. To copy DNA
    3. To create DNA nucleotides.
    4. To maintain the temperature of the PCR reaction.

49. The limitations of PCR are ________.

    1. Contamination risk
    2. Primer complexities
    3. Primer-binding site complexities
    4. All of the given

50. For making cDNA ________ is used as a template.

    1. DNA
    2. RNA
    3. cDNA
    4. All of the given

51. ________ is used as a template to produce DNA in Reverse Transcripatase PCR.

    1. DNA
    2. RNA
    3. Protein
    4. All of the given

52. At what temperature does annealing of DNA and primer take place?

    1. 54°C
    2. 96°C
    3. 42°C
    4. 74°C

53. Denaturation is the process of ________.

    1. Heating between 72°C
    2. Heating between 40 to 60°C
    3. Heating between 90 to 98°C
    4. All of the given

54. Two pair of enzymes are used in ________ PCR.

    1. Nested
    2. Multiplex
    3. RT-PCR
    4. Conventional

55. In ________ is a polymerase chain reaction that actually takes place inside the cell on a slide

    1. Situ PCR (ISH)
    2. Nested PCR
    3. Colony
    4. RT-PCR

Select a course code for Objective Questions:

ACC311 ACC501 BIF101 BIF401 BIF501 BIO101 BIO201 BIO202 BIO203 BIO204 BIO301 BIO302 BIO303 BIO401 BIO503 BNK603 BT101 BT201 BT301 BT302 BT401 BT402 BT403 BT404 BT405 BT406 BT501 BT504 BT505 BT604 CHE201 CHE301 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS202 CS204 CS301 CS302 CS304 CS311 CS401 CS402 CS403 CS408 CS501 CS502 CS504 CS506 CS508 CS601 CS602 CS604 CS605 CS607 CS609 CS610 CS614 CS707 CS710 ECO401 ECO402 ECO403 ECO404 EDU302 EDU401 EDU402 EDU501 EDU601 ENG101 ENG201 ENG301 ENG501 FIN611 FIN624 FIN625 ISL201 IT430 MCM101 MCM301 MGMT623 MGT101 MGT211 MGT301 MGT401 MGT402 MGT501 MGT502 MGT503 MGT510 MGT601 MGT603 MKT501 MKT610 MKT630 MTH101 MTH202 MTH302 MTH501 MTH601 MTH634 PAK301 PHY101 PHY301 PSY101 PSY403 PSY502 PSY512 SOC101 SOC301 SOC401 STA301 STA630 STA641 ZOO102 ZOO401 ZOO501 ZOO502 ZOO503 ZOO504 ZOO505 ZOO506 ZOO510 ZOO630

Select a course code for Subjective Questions:

ACC311 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS301 CS607 CS701 CS702 CS703 CS704 CS707 CS708 CS710 CS711 CS718 CS721 CS724 ECO401 ECO403 ENG101 ENG301 MGT703 MTH501 STA301