Software Engineering - II (CS605)

1. Quality cost may be divided into costs associated with:

   1. Prevention, appraisal and failure
   2. Customers, developers and maintenance
   3. Builds, releases and products
   4. Bugs, errors and Reports

2. Quality assurance helps management in providing the necessary data about:

   1. Product quality
   2. Errors/bugs left
   3. Errors/bugs highlighted
   4. Defect reports

3. If an error related to requirements is identified in testing phase, this error will be considered as an error of ___________ phase.

   1. Requirement
   2. Design
   3. Code
   4. Testing

4. Which of the following is not TRUE about "Error Tracking"?

   1. Error tracking can be used to estimate the progress of the project.
   2. We track errors in work products to assess the status of a project.
   3. During "Error Tracking", we may also need the historical data from similar projects.
   4. All of the given

5. ________ is one of the techniques used during severe deadline pressure.

   1. PERT
   2. CPM
   3. Time Boxing
   4. Macroscopic scheduling

6. BCWP refers to:

   1. Normalized value of budgeted cost
   2. Overall expected cost of the project (anticipated cost)
   3. Budgeted cost of work performed so far
   4. Overall cost of the project (calculated after completion of project)

7. BCWS for a task i will be equal to:

   1. Risks appeared in task i
   2. Effort (person-days etc) for task i
   3. Resource deficiency for task i
   4. None of the given

8. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is equal to

   1. BCWP / BCWS
   2. BCWP * BCWS
   3. BCWP + BCWS
   4. BCWP - BCWS

9. BCWS stands for:

   1. Beginning Cost of Whole System
   2. Budgeted Cost of Whole System
   3. Budgeted Cost of Work Schedule
   4. None of the given

10. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a ______ technique for assessing the progress of a project.

    1. Qualitative
    2. Quantitative
    3. Subjective
    4. None of the given

11. Critical path defines:

    1. The list of the resources that may be needed for future activities.
    2. The chain of tasks that determines the duration of the project.
    3. The list of the deficient resources, project is suffering from.
    4. None of the given

12. CPM stands for:

    1. Critical Project Measure
    2. Critical Path Method
    3. Common Project Measure
    4. Critical Planning Model

13. The boundary time defines the following parameter(s) for a project:

    1. The latest time for task initiation before the minimum project completion time is delayed
    2. The earliest finish
    3. The latest finish
    4. All of the given

14. ________ is one of the techniques to prepare project schedule once we have defined "task network"

    1. Program evaluation and review techniques (PERT)
    2. Critical Communication path method (CCPM)
    3. System resource negotiation method (SRNM)
    4. Strategic Schedule Development technique (SSDT)

15. The progress on a project at any given point in time can be calculated by:

    1. Adding all the BCWS till that point for all tasks
    2. Multiplying all the BCWS till that point for all tasks
    3. Adding BCWS and EVA for all tasks till that point
    4. None of the given

16. Defining a "Task Network" helps in defining:

    1. Cost the project
    2. The resources required for project
    3. Third party tools required for project
    4. Sequence in which activities will be performed

17. FTR stands for:

    1. Feasibility of technical requirement
    2. Fetched Technical Requirement
    3. Formal Technical Review
    4. None of the given

18. The more you refine the tasks, the more you can:

    1. Estimate task with accuracy
    2. Conclude about scope with accuracy
    3. Schedule the project with accuracy
    4. All of the given

19. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a ________ technique for assessing the progress of a project.

    1. Qualitative
    2. Quantitative
    3. Subjective
    4. None of the given

20. Following are effective guidelines for Review EXCEPT

    1. We need to review the product not the producer
    2. Be sensitive to personal egos
    3. Errors should be pointed out gently
    4. Tone should be high and strict

21. BAC stands for:

    1. Budgeted Analysis Cost
    2. Budget And Cost
    3. Budget at compilation
    4. Budget at Completion

22. MTTF is the abbreviation of

    1. Median time to failure
    2. Mean time to failure
    3. Mean time to forward
    4. Moderate time to failure

23. In order to use the PERT and CPM, which one of the following is NOT required?

    1. Decomposition of tasks - also known as the work breakdown structure (WBS).
    2. Teams communication mode details.
    3. Estimation of effort.
    4. Interdependencies.

24. Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) can be calculated by:

    1. MTBF=MTTF+MTTR
    2. MTBF=MTTF-MTTR
    3. MTBF=(MTTF/MTTR)* 100
    4. MTBF=(MTTR/MTTF)* 100

25. The equation to find out the Availability of software is:

    1. Availability = (MTTF x MTBF) / 100
    2. Availability = (MTTF / MTBF) x 100
    3. Availability = (MTTF + MTBF) x 100
    4. Availability = (MTTF - MTBF) x 100

26. SQA is an umbrella activity in which following activities are performed EXCEPT

    1. Review
    2. Testing
    3. Project Planning
    4. Inspection

27. Milestone represents:

    1. A predictable risk that may hit the project
    2. An unpredictable risk that may hit the project
    3. The Loss that organization may suffer due to risk
    4. The defined target which you need to achieve

28. A system is considered to be a legacy system if it has been in operation for ________ years. A legacy system has many components.

    1. Less than seven
    2. Many
    3. More than two
    4. Less than ten

29. Which of the following is incorrect?

    1. Traditional wisdom states that the cost of fixing a fault grows rapidly in later phases of the SDLC.
    2. The defect reduction model reduces faults through stringent quality assurance activities at each phase of the SDLC.
    3. Most faults are introduced during the coding phase
    4. Agile practices claim that the cost of fixing a fault is essentially the same throughout SDLC.

30. Which of the following is NOT an example of Software Configuration Item (SCI):

    1. Test Case
    2. Integration Plan
    3. Design specification
    4. None of the given.

31. Configuration Status Reporting (CSR) reports on

    1. What happened?
    2. Who did it?
    3. When did it happen?
    4. All of the given

32. A major issue in requirements engineering is the rate at at which requirements change once the requirements phase has "officially" ________.

    1. Approved
    2. Deleted
    3. Ended
    4. None of the given

33. The software reengineering is a ________ activity.

    1. Code
    2. Out dated
    3. Document
    4. Non-trivial

34. ________ engineering for software is a process for analyzing a program in an effort to create a representation of the program at a higher level abstraction than the source code.

    1. Reserve
    2. Forward
    3. BPR
    4. None of the given

35. Configuration Auditing deals with:

    1. Ensuring that Resources have been allocated properly.
    2. Ensuring that changes are implemented parallel with SDLC framework activities.
    3. Ensuring that the changes have been implemented properly
    4. All of the given

36. ________ engineering requires application of SE principles, methods, and concepts to re-create an existing application.

    1. Reserve
    2. Forward
    3. BPR
    4. None of the given

37. ________ engineering does not simply create a modern equivalent of an older program, rather new user and technology requirements are integrated into the reengineering effort.

    1. Forward
    2. BPR
    3. Reverse
    4. None of the given

38. ________ technique was initially developed for manufacturing processes in the 1920’s by Walter Shewart.

    1. Upper Control Line
    2. Contorl chart
    3. CMP
    4. Quality

39. Control charts are of following two types:

    1. Moving range control charts and Individual control charts
    2. Moving range control charts and statical control charts
    3. Individual control charts and statical control charts
    4. None of the given options

40. In context of "Individual control chart", if a single metrics value lies outside UNPL, it means that:

    1. The process has been matured
    2. The process is not mature yet
    3. Process is out of control
    4. Process is within control

41. In context of moving range and individual control charts, UNPL stands for:

    1. Universal Natural Process Line
    2. Universal Natural Process Limit
    3. Upper Natural Process Limit
    4. Upper Natural Process Line

42. When more than one users interpret the same requirement in different ways then we can say that the requirement is:

    1. None of the given
    2. Incomplete
    3. Ambiguous
    4. Incorrect

43. Identify the most appropriate statement:

    1. The quality of the software specification is of extreme importance.
    2. The non functional requirements can be skipped.
    3. The non functional requirements does not impact the quality of product.
    4. None of the given options.

44. We need to employ some statistical techniques and plot the results __________. These are known as statistical control techniques.

    1. Graphically
    2. Automatically
    3. Manually
    4. Personally

45. For a software the total number of requirements are equal to ________.

    1. Functional requirements
    2. Non functional requirements
    3. Functional requirements + non functional requirements
    4. None of the given options

46. ________ is the measure of how many defects are removed by the quality assurance processes before the product is shipped for operation.

    1. Removal Deficiency
    2. Defect removal efficiency
    3. Bug Report
    4. Bug Tracking Algorithm

47. Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controlled, is called _______.

    1. None of given
    2. Efficiency
    3. Reliability
    4. Integrity

48. The extent to which a program can be reused in other applications is called ________.

    1. Reliability
    2. Performance
    3. Usability
    4. Reusability

49. Quality can be measured if we measure the _____ of the product.

    1. correctness
    2. maintainability
    3. integrity and usability
    4. All of the given options

50. The amount of "computing resources", required by a program to perform its function is __________.

    1. Efficiency
    2. Integrity
    3. Reliability
    4. None of given

51. Effort required to test a program to ensure that it performs its intended function ________.

    1. Testability
    2. Bug fixing
    3. Debugging
    4. Security

52. Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controlled, is called ________.

    1. None of given
    2. Efficiency
    3. Reliability
    4. Integrity

53. Defect removal efficiency is calculated as: Where E = errors found before delivery D = errors found after delivery (typically within the first year of operation)

    1. DRE = E/(E+D)
    2. DRE = E + D
    3. DRE = E + D/E
    4. DRE = E/D - E

54. Defects per function points is a ________.

    1. Measure
    2. Metric
    3. Quality attribute
    4. Process

55. A ________ provides a quantitative value of some attribute of a process or a product.

    1. Metric
    2. Measure
    3. Function point
    4. Plan

Select a course code for Objective Questions:

ACC311 ACC501 BIF101 BIF401 BIF501 BIO101 BIO201 BIO202 BIO203 BIO204 BIO301 BIO302 BIO303 BIO401 BIO503 BNK603 BT101 BT201 BT301 BT302 BT401 BT402 BT403 BT404 BT405 BT406 BT501 BT504 BT505 BT604 CHE201 CHE301 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS202 CS204 CS301 CS302 CS304 CS311 CS401 CS402 CS403 CS408 CS501 CS502 CS504 CS506 CS508 CS601 CS602 CS604 CS605 CS607 CS609 CS610 CS614 CS707 CS710 ECO401 ECO402 ECO403 ECO404 EDU302 EDU401 EDU402 EDU501 EDU601 ENG101 ENG201 ENG301 ENG501 FIN611 FIN624 FIN625 ISL201 IT430 MCM101 MCM301 MGMT623 MGT101 MGT211 MGT301 MGT401 MGT402 MGT501 MGT502 MGT503 MGT510 MGT601 MGT603 MKT501 MKT610 MKT630 MTH101 MTH202 MTH302 MTH501 MTH601 MTH634 PAK301 PHY101 PHY301 PSY101 PSY403 PSY502 PSY512 SOC101 SOC301 SOC401 STA301 STA630 STA641 ZOO102 ZOO401 ZOO501 ZOO502 ZOO503 ZOO504 ZOO505 ZOO506 ZOO510 ZOO630

Select a course code for Subjective Questions:

ACC311 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS301 CS607 CS701 CS702 CS703 CS704 CS707 CS708 CS710 CS711 CS718 CS721 CS724 ECO401 ECO403 ENG101 ENG301 MGT703 MTH501 STA301